Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
Introduction
Your study guide consists of a Job Description, a list of Knowledge, Skills, and Abilities (KSAs), References, and 50 Sample Question primer for the examination.
• The Job Description describes the education and background for student candidates.
• The KSAs have ten major sections. Sections I-IX cover the core knowledge and skills expected of student candidates. Section X, consisting of the specific, discipline related, in-depth, upper level knowledge, skills, and abilities. Please note that the sub-categories listed under the capital letters in the KSAs are examples and are not meant to be all-inclusive, or to indicate that there will necessarily be a question on the examination from every sub-category.
• The References are broken into core references and discipline-related references. The core references are identical for all the ABC examinations. The discipline-related references are specific to each discipline.
• There are fifty Sample Questions to give you an idea of the range of content and difficulty that will appear on the examination. For further information, please see “Introduction to ABC Certification Examinations.”
Please note that this study guide will be updated periodically. Check for updates.
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
Job Description
The student must be enrolled in a forensic science educational program. This examination is designed for graduating seniors and graduate students.
A qualified student candidate must be able to:
• Understand the major scientific principles behind forensic science analysis.
• Understand how to recognize, collect, secure, and preserve physical evidence.
• Understand how to perform physical, chemical, and/or biological analyses to locate and identify items having evidential value.
• Understand how to interpret and compare analytical data generated from the analyses of physical/chemical evidence and known exemplars.
• Understand how to recognize the potential for forensic examinations in areas outside an area of specialization, prioritize the sequence of examinations, and handle evidence accordingly.
• Evaluate the appropriateness and/or the appropriate method of securing samples.
• Understand the use of laboratory instrumentation.
• Observe safe practices to ensure the safety of analysts.
• Understand legal processes including courtroom testimony, relevant legal decisions and concepts.
• Recognize and employ quality assurance measures to ensure the integrity of the analyses.
• Understand the importance of impartial and ethical work practices.
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
Knowledge, Skills, and Abilities (KSA)
I. History
A. Evolution of practice (past practices)
B. Significant historical figures (e.g., Locard, Gross, Orfila, Kirk)
II. Crime Scene Preservation
A.Securing
B. Isolating
C.Recording
D. Searching
E. Recognition of evidentiary value
F. Safety
III. Crime Laboratory Operations – Overview
A. Laboratory Disciplines
1. Forensic biology
2. Controlled substances
3. Trace analysis
4. Toxicology
5. Latent fingerprints
6. Questioned documents
7. Fire debris
8. Firearms/Toolmarks
9. Digital evidence
IV. QA/QC
A. Accreditation, Certification, Standardization
1. Laboratory accreditation
2. Personnel certification
3. Standardization
B. QA/QC Application
1. Definitions
2. Validation and verification
3. Controls and standard reference materials
4. Proficiency Testing
C. Document/Data Management
1. Databases
2. Case document preservation/integrity
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
V. Safety
A. Chemical Hygiene
1. Safety labeling (MSDS)
B. Universal Precautions
1. Blood born pathogens
2. Person protective equipment
C. Hazardous Waste/Biohazardous Waste Handling
1. Spill control
VI. Legal
A. Decisions/laws
1. Frye
2. Daubert and related decisions
B. Legal terminology
1. Subpoena, deposition
C. Court Testimony
1. Voir dire/qualification
2. Expert witness
D. Procedural Law
1. Search and seizure (4th Amendment)
2. Discovery
VII. Ethics
A. Professional Ethics
1. Conflict of interest
2. Professional integrity
3. Objectivity
4. Professional obligations
VIII. Evidence Handling
A. Evidence Recognition and Collection
1. Prioritization based on circumstance
2. Sampling
B. Evidence Characteristics (Class/Individual)
1. Identification
2. Primary, secondary transfers
3. Visible vs. latent evidence
C. Evidence Preservation and Integrity
1. Chain of custody
2. Alteration/degradation
D. Evidence Packaging
1. Proper sealing
2. Types of packaging
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
IX. General Science Terms and Principles
A. Definitions and applications
1. Scientific Method
2. Microscopy
3. Instrumentation
B. General Chemistry Concepts
1. Nomenclature (IUPAC)
2. Type of molecules (e.g., aromatics, isoalkanes)
3. Atomic, molecular weights
4. Acids/bases
5. Periodic Table
6. Elemental Composition
7. Bonding
C. General Biology Concepts
1. Cell structure
2. Genetics
3. Characteristics of body fluids
D. General Physics Concepts
1. Energy
2. Electromagnetic spectrum
3. Force
E. General Physiology and Anatomy Concepts
F. General Statistics
1. Central tendency
2. Variation
3. Population characteristics
G. Stoichiometry
H. Logic
I. Metric System
1. Metric to metric conversion
2. Metric to English conversion
X. Theory and Application
A. Forensic biology
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
B. Controlled substances
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
C. Trace analysis
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
D. Toxicology
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
E. Latent fingerprints
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
F. Questioned documents
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
G. Fire debris
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
H. Firearms/Toolmarks
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
I. Pattern evidence
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
References
Techniques of Crime Scene Investigation, 7th Edition, by Fisher, B.J. (Boca Raton: CRC Press, 2004) ISBN 0-8493-1691-X.
Criminalistics, An Introduction to Forensic Science, 7th Edition (or higher), by Saferstein, R. (Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall, 1998) ISBN 0-13-592940-7.
Forensic Science Handbook, Volume I, 2nd Edition, edited by Saferstein, R. (Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice Hall, 2002) ISBN 0-13-091058-9.
Forensic Science Handbook, Volume II, 2nd Edition, edited by Saferstein, R. (Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice Hall, 2005) ISBN 0-13-112434-X.
Forensic Science Handbook, Volume III, edited by Saferstein, R. (Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice Hall, 1993) ISBN 0-13-325390-2.
Fundamentals of Forensic Science, by Houck, M., Siegel, J. (Burlington, MA: Elsevier Academic Press, 2006) 0-12-356762-9.
Forensic Chemistry, by Bell, S., (Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall, 2006) ISBN 0-13-147835-4.
“The Rule of Professional Conduct” supplied by the American Board of Criminalistics.
Forensic DNA Typing, by Butler, J. (San Diego, CA: Academic Press, 2001) ISBN 0-12-147951-X
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
Sample Questions
1. Which of the following best describes the value of field kits for the chemical testing of controlled substances?
a. They remove the necessity for laboratory analysis.
b. They are presumptive tests.
c. They have questionable reliability.
d. They allow the officer to make a field identification.
2. The primary reason for proving “chain of custody” on a particular item in court is to:
a. authenticate the item.
b. Show how many people handled the item.
c. Show how long it was in each person’s possession.
d. Deter or prevent unauthorized individuals from handling the evidence.
3. Which of the following spectral regions has the highest energy?
a. Ultraviolet.
b. Infrared.
c. Radio.
d. Visible.
4. Human genomic DNA is not found in:
a. White blood cells.
b. Red blood cells.
c. Spermatozoa.
d. Epithelial cells.
5. You receive an envelope containing a semi-automatic pistol for an operability check. You open the envelope to examine the weapon. You first remove a fully loaded magazine. The weapon is now:
a. Potentially still loaded and unsafe.
b. Unloaded and safe.
c. Potentially still loaded but safe.
d. Rendered safe because of a magazine disconnect.
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
6. When handling biological materials, which of the following is the most reasonable approach to take?
a. Precautions are not normally necessary for sample handling since transmission of disease has not been shown to occur from such contact.
b. Precautions need only be taken when samples are in the liquid state since disease vectors are no longer viable upon drying.
c. Precautions should be taken regardless of the condition or the origin of the samples being handled.
d. Precautions need only be taken with unknown stains and liquids since preservatives and chelating agents present in reference samples will kill any communicable disease.
7. Which of the following actions is not forbidden by the ABC Code of Professional Conduct?
a. Embellishing one’s qualifications when testifying.
b. Utilizing a secret method.
c. Refusing to honor a subpoena duces tecum.
d. Interpreting equivocal results based only on an employer’s wishes.
8. Upon reviewing your notes for a court appearance in one week, you realize that there is a clerical error and two results have been reversed. Which of the following is the best course of action?
a. Issue a corrected report including the date of the correction and testify to the error if asked.
b. Immediately notify the attorney and issue a report which makes the correction clear.
c. Immediately make an entry in your notes as to your discovery and correct it in testimony if asked.
d. Correct the error in testimony if asked, but make no additions or alterations to your notes.
9. A defendant has a combination of genetic marker types common to a particular evidence stain and 0.1 percent of the population. This means:
a. approximately 1 out of 1000 people would have the same types
b. the next 999 people that walked into the court room would not have the same combination of types
c. we are 99.9% certain that the person responsible is being tried
d. we are 0.1% certain that the person responsible is being tried
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
10. A drunk driver struck a pedestrian at a dark intersection. Realizing that the
headlamps were not on, the driver turns them on before the police arrive. The
broken right front low beam flashes and goes out. The police collect the
headlamp and submit it to you for examination. You are likely to find which of
the following indicators?
I. A sharp break
II. Hot deformation
III. Fused glass
IV. Large amounts of WO3 deposits
a. IV only
b. I only
c. II and III
d. II, III, and IV
11. Consider a fiber mounted in a Cargille oil having a refractive index (RI) of 1.520.
When the distance between the focused fiber specimen and the microscope's
objective lens is increased the observed Becke line moves away from the fiber.
Which statement is correct?
a. n(iso)<1.52
b. n(iso)>1.52
c. n(parallel)>1.52
d. n(parallel)<1.52
12. Microscopic examination of paint chips recovered from the clothing of a
pedestrian hit-and-run victim discloses the presence of numerous tiny glass
spheres in the paint. These glass spheres are diagnostic of which one of the
following?
a. a reflective paint
b. a automobile body filler
c. a broken headlamp on the suspect automobile
d. a custom topcoat formulation on the suspect automobile
13. What purpose does humidity serve when processing latent prints with
Cyanoacrylate?
a. causes polymerization and the formation of white particles on the ridges
b. cools the fuming chamber
c. accelerates development time
d. causes a chemical reaction that will turn the ridges purple
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
14. How many moles of Na2SO4 are required to make 500 ml of 0.5 M Na2SO4?
a. 0.25
b. 2.5
c. 0.025
d. 25
15. What are the most important components of a polymerase chain reaction?
a. oligonucleotides
b. dinucleotides
c. ribonucleotides
d. dideoxynucleotides
16. What will you do if the signal (e.g. peak height) obtained during the analysis is 2/5
times the noise level?
a. not report anything qualitative or quantitative
b. report qualitative results but not quantitative
c. report quantitative results, but not qualitative
d. report both qualitative and quantitative result
17. Which one of the following statements applies to FT-IR but NOT to dispersive IR?
a. the technique is considered to be a confirmatory test
b. the resulting spectrum is a measure of molecular vibration
c. the infrared radiation is analyzed utilizing interferometer
d. solid samples are prepared by mixing the sample with KBr and pressing a pellet
18. Which one of the following groups are vegetable fibers used in making rope and
cordage?
a. jute, hemp, manila, sisal
b. coir, flax, cotton, chrysotile
c. sisal, kapok, hemp, burlap
d. cotton, flax, kapok, coir
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
19. The differences in striation markings along a gun's bore could be the result of:
a. imperfections of the rifling cutter, distortions caused by a broach cutter, and
wear from the firing of bullets over time
b. imperfections of the rifling cutter
c. distortions caused by a broach cutter
d. wear from the firing of bullets over time
20. What is the value of a single piece of class evidence?
a. aid in the corroboration of events
b. relate physical evidence to a common origin
c. exclude or exonerate a person from suspicion
d. all of the above
21. Which of the following pairs of compounds are enantiomers?
a. psilocin and psilocybin
b. LSD and Lampa
c. d-cocaine and l-cocaine
d. phentermine and methamphetamine
22. How will the Rf values for eluents most likely be affected if a TLC tank is not kept saturated with the developing solvent?
a. They will increase.
b. They will decrease.
c. They will increase or decrease unpredictably.
d. They will not be affected.
23. If the IR absorbance spectrum for a previously unidentified drug matches that of an l-amphetamine HCL standard, which of the following would be a justifiable conclusion?
a. The unknown is l-amphetamine hydrochloride.
b. The unknown could be d-amphetamine hydrochloride.
c. The unknown could be l-amphetamine sulfate.
d. The unknown could be methamphetamine hydrochloride.
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
24. With which one of the following drugs will the Marquis reagent NOT produce a colored reaction product?
a. morphine
b. mescaline
c. amphetamine
d. barbiturate
25. Which one of the following reagents would be most useful for visualization and differentiation of the various cannabinoids separated from a marijuana extract on a TLC plate?
a. Ninhydrin and UV light
b. Dragandorff reagent
c. Fast blue 2B
d. Fluram
26. Which one of the following terms names the functional group responsible for the absorption of ultraviolet or visible radiation?
a. chromophore
b. auxochrome
c. bathochrome
d. hypsochrome
27. The term “theoretical plate” refers to which one of the following parameters in gas chromatography?
a. retention time
b. polarity
c. efficiency
d. stationary phase thickness
28. 250 mg of heroin standard is dissolved in 25 mL of a solvent. 1mL of this solution is added to 5 mL of an internal standard solution and then diluted with more solvent to a final volume of 10 mL. What is the final concentration of the heroin standard?
a. 0.10 mg/mL
b. 0.25 mg/mL
c. 1.00 mg/mL
d. 2.50 mg/mL
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
29. What is an MSDS?
a. A document of chemical safety.
b. An instrument for chemical analysis.
c. A technique for testing DNA.
d. A type of explosive material.
30. In microscopy, which one of the following terms describes the relationship between retardation and thickness?
a. Aberration
b. Dispersion
c. Scattering
d. Birefringence
31. Which of the following statements BEST describes the phenomenon of pH?
a. The negative log of the hydrogen ion concentration.
b. The positive log of the hydrogen ion concentration.
c. The difference between the concentrations of the hydrogen ions and the hydroxyl ions
d. The titer of the hydrogen ions in solution.
32. Which of the following actions is not forbidden by the ABC Code of Professional Conduct?
a. Embellishing one’s qualifications when testifying.
b. Utilizing a secret method.
c. Refusing to honor a subpoena duces tecum.
d. Interpreting equivocal results based only on an employer’s wishes.
33. Ohm’s law interrelates potential (volts) to ________________?
a. Power
b. Joules
c. Resistance
d. Conductance
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
34. What is the range of probabilities that two genes on the same chromosome will remain together after meiosis?
a. 5% to 25%
b. 1% to 99%
c. 25% to 75%
d. 50% to 99%
35. Which of the following assumptions is required in order to use the product rule
a. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
b. Dependent inheritance of the genetic markers
c. Independent inheritance of the genetic markers
d. Proper statistical sampling of the population
36. A nucleic acid must contain a nitrogenous base and which of the following?
I. Aromatic ring
II. 4-carbon ring
III. 5-carbon ring
IV. phosphate
a. I, II, and IV
b. III and IV
c. I and III
d. I and IV
37. What are the four nucleotides found in DNA?
a. thiamine, adenine, guanine, cysteine
b. alanine, guanine, cytosine, thiamine
c. cytosine, thymine, guanine, adenine
d. adenine, cysteine, thymine, guanine
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
38. Which of the following factors DO NOT affect the migration of DNA fragments through an electrophoretic system?
I. pore size
II. tracking dye
III. DNA shape
a. II only
b. II and III
c. I and II
d. I and III
39. A three banded isoenzyme pattern with a 1:2:1 intensity ratio indicates a ________________ protein.
a. monomeric
b. dimeric
c. trimeric
d. tetrameric
40. Consider the following data describing a genetic marker:
1-1 N = 120
2-1 N = 90
2-2 N = 60
The Probability of Discrimination (PD) for the genetic marker is described by the data above is:
a. 0.10
b. 0.29
c. 0.71
d. 0.90
41. What are organic compounds having the basic formula NH2-R-COOH (where R = an aliphatic or aromatic side chain) that are polymerized to form peptides and proteins termed?
a. amino acids
b. enzymes
c. phospholipids
d. polysaccharides
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
42. Detection of p30 in a questioned stain would allow identification of semen from individuals who are classified as:
a. anemic
b. aspermic
c. nonsecretors
d. secretors
43. Which one of the following products would be expected to contain the HIGHEST concentration of aromatic hydrocarbons?
a. Paint thinner.
b. Gasoline.
c. Kerosene.
d. Coleman fuel.
44. The transfer of heat energy through a solid material by contact between its moving molecules is called:
a. Conduction.
b. Convection.
c. Radiation.
d. Direct flame impingement
45. Which of the following classes of compounds is the MOST indicative of gasoline?
a. Polynuclear hydrocarbons.
b. Aliphatic hydrocarbons.
c. Alicyclic hydrocarbons.
d. Aromatic hydrocarbons
46. Which of the following garments would be the most suitable for collection of trace evidence by using a tape lift technique?
a. Nylon shell windbreaker
b. Mohair sweater
c. Cotton/polyester blend dress shirt
d. Pair of blue denim trousers
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
47. Which of the following properties of synthetic fibers require the use of a polarized light microscope for their determination?
I. Sign of elongation
II. Birefringence
III. Extinction
IV. Modification ratio
V. Refractive index
a. I, II and III, only
b. V, only
c. I and V, only
d. II, III and V, only
48. What is phaeomelanin?
a. A reddish-brown to yellow pigment occurring in hair.
b. A sulfur-containing fibrous protein.
c. A condition of hair characterized by brittle hair with a clean break.
d. A brown pigment occurring in hair.
49. Which of the following elements would NOT normally be detected using conventional x-ray fluorescence or energy dispersive x-ray spectroscopic methods employing a beryllium window detector?
I. Lithium. II. Chlorine. III. Boron. IV. Chromium
a. I only
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV
50. Which of the following is the most common type of external plasticizer found in the paint industry?
a. phosphates
b. butyl acrylate
c. phthalates
d. adipates
Introduction
Your study guide consists of a Job Description, a list of Knowledge, Skills, and Abilities (KSAs), References, and 50 Sample Question primer for the examination.
• The Job Description describes the education and background for student candidates.
• The KSAs have ten major sections. Sections I-IX cover the core knowledge and skills expected of student candidates. Section X, consisting of the specific, discipline related, in-depth, upper level knowledge, skills, and abilities. Please note that the sub-categories listed under the capital letters in the KSAs are examples and are not meant to be all-inclusive, or to indicate that there will necessarily be a question on the examination from every sub-category.
• The References are broken into core references and discipline-related references. The core references are identical for all the ABC examinations. The discipline-related references are specific to each discipline.
• There are fifty Sample Questions to give you an idea of the range of content and difficulty that will appear on the examination. For further information, please see “Introduction to ABC Certification Examinations.”
Please note that this study guide will be updated periodically. Check for updates.
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
Job Description
The student must be enrolled in a forensic science educational program. This examination is designed for graduating seniors and graduate students.
A qualified student candidate must be able to:
• Understand the major scientific principles behind forensic science analysis.
• Understand how to recognize, collect, secure, and preserve physical evidence.
• Understand how to perform physical, chemical, and/or biological analyses to locate and identify items having evidential value.
• Understand how to interpret and compare analytical data generated from the analyses of physical/chemical evidence and known exemplars.
• Understand how to recognize the potential for forensic examinations in areas outside an area of specialization, prioritize the sequence of examinations, and handle evidence accordingly.
• Evaluate the appropriateness and/or the appropriate method of securing samples.
• Understand the use of laboratory instrumentation.
• Observe safe practices to ensure the safety of analysts.
• Understand legal processes including courtroom testimony, relevant legal decisions and concepts.
• Recognize and employ quality assurance measures to ensure the integrity of the analyses.
• Understand the importance of impartial and ethical work practices.
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
Knowledge, Skills, and Abilities (KSA)
I. History
A. Evolution of practice (past practices)
B. Significant historical figures (e.g., Locard, Gross, Orfila, Kirk)
II. Crime Scene Preservation
A.Securing
B. Isolating
C.Recording
D. Searching
E. Recognition of evidentiary value
F. Safety
III. Crime Laboratory Operations – Overview
A. Laboratory Disciplines
1. Forensic biology
2. Controlled substances
3. Trace analysis
4. Toxicology
5. Latent fingerprints
6. Questioned documents
7. Fire debris
8. Firearms/Toolmarks
9. Digital evidence
IV. QA/QC
A. Accreditation, Certification, Standardization
1. Laboratory accreditation
2. Personnel certification
3. Standardization
B. QA/QC Application
1. Definitions
2. Validation and verification
3. Controls and standard reference materials
4. Proficiency Testing
C. Document/Data Management
1. Databases
2. Case document preservation/integrity
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
V. Safety
A. Chemical Hygiene
1. Safety labeling (MSDS)
B. Universal Precautions
1. Blood born pathogens
2. Person protective equipment
C. Hazardous Waste/Biohazardous Waste Handling
1. Spill control
VI. Legal
A. Decisions/laws
1. Frye
2. Daubert and related decisions
B. Legal terminology
1. Subpoena, deposition
C. Court Testimony
1. Voir dire/qualification
2. Expert witness
D. Procedural Law
1. Search and seizure (4th Amendment)
2. Discovery
VII. Ethics
A. Professional Ethics
1. Conflict of interest
2. Professional integrity
3. Objectivity
4. Professional obligations
VIII. Evidence Handling
A. Evidence Recognition and Collection
1. Prioritization based on circumstance
2. Sampling
B. Evidence Characteristics (Class/Individual)
1. Identification
2. Primary, secondary transfers
3. Visible vs. latent evidence
C. Evidence Preservation and Integrity
1. Chain of custody
2. Alteration/degradation
D. Evidence Packaging
1. Proper sealing
2. Types of packaging
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
IX. General Science Terms and Principles
A. Definitions and applications
1. Scientific Method
2. Microscopy
3. Instrumentation
B. General Chemistry Concepts
1. Nomenclature (IUPAC)
2. Type of molecules (e.g., aromatics, isoalkanes)
3. Atomic, molecular weights
4. Acids/bases
5. Periodic Table
6. Elemental Composition
7. Bonding
C. General Biology Concepts
1. Cell structure
2. Genetics
3. Characteristics of body fluids
D. General Physics Concepts
1. Energy
2. Electromagnetic spectrum
3. Force
E. General Physiology and Anatomy Concepts
F. General Statistics
1. Central tendency
2. Variation
3. Population characteristics
G. Stoichiometry
H. Logic
I. Metric System
1. Metric to metric conversion
2. Metric to English conversion
X. Theory and Application
A. Forensic biology
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
B. Controlled substances
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
C. Trace analysis
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
D. Toxicology
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
E. Latent fingerprints
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
F. Questioned documents
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
G. Fire debris
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
H. Firearms/Toolmarks
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
I. Pattern evidence
1. Analytical Techniques
2. Instrumentation
3. Data Interpretation
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
References
Techniques of Crime Scene Investigation, 7th Edition, by Fisher, B.J. (Boca Raton: CRC Press, 2004) ISBN 0-8493-1691-X.
Criminalistics, An Introduction to Forensic Science, 7th Edition (or higher), by Saferstein, R. (Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall, 1998) ISBN 0-13-592940-7.
Forensic Science Handbook, Volume I, 2nd Edition, edited by Saferstein, R. (Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice Hall, 2002) ISBN 0-13-091058-9.
Forensic Science Handbook, Volume II, 2nd Edition, edited by Saferstein, R. (Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice Hall, 2005) ISBN 0-13-112434-X.
Forensic Science Handbook, Volume III, edited by Saferstein, R. (Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice Hall, 1993) ISBN 0-13-325390-2.
Fundamentals of Forensic Science, by Houck, M., Siegel, J. (Burlington, MA: Elsevier Academic Press, 2006) 0-12-356762-9.
Forensic Chemistry, by Bell, S., (Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall, 2006) ISBN 0-13-147835-4.
“The Rule of Professional Conduct” supplied by the American Board of Criminalistics.
Forensic DNA Typing, by Butler, J. (San Diego, CA: Academic Press, 2001) ISBN 0-12-147951-X
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
Sample Questions
1. Which of the following best describes the value of field kits for the chemical testing of controlled substances?
a. They remove the necessity for laboratory analysis.
b. They are presumptive tests.
c. They have questionable reliability.
d. They allow the officer to make a field identification.
2. The primary reason for proving “chain of custody” on a particular item in court is to:
a. authenticate the item.
b. Show how many people handled the item.
c. Show how long it was in each person’s possession.
d. Deter or prevent unauthorized individuals from handling the evidence.
3. Which of the following spectral regions has the highest energy?
a. Ultraviolet.
b. Infrared.
c. Radio.
d. Visible.
4. Human genomic DNA is not found in:
a. White blood cells.
b. Red blood cells.
c. Spermatozoa.
d. Epithelial cells.
5. You receive an envelope containing a semi-automatic pistol for an operability check. You open the envelope to examine the weapon. You first remove a fully loaded magazine. The weapon is now:
a. Potentially still loaded and unsafe.
b. Unloaded and safe.
c. Potentially still loaded but safe.
d. Rendered safe because of a magazine disconnect.
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
6. When handling biological materials, which of the following is the most reasonable approach to take?
a. Precautions are not normally necessary for sample handling since transmission of disease has not been shown to occur from such contact.
b. Precautions need only be taken when samples are in the liquid state since disease vectors are no longer viable upon drying.
c. Precautions should be taken regardless of the condition or the origin of the samples being handled.
d. Precautions need only be taken with unknown stains and liquids since preservatives and chelating agents present in reference samples will kill any communicable disease.
7. Which of the following actions is not forbidden by the ABC Code of Professional Conduct?
a. Embellishing one’s qualifications when testifying.
b. Utilizing a secret method.
c. Refusing to honor a subpoena duces tecum.
d. Interpreting equivocal results based only on an employer’s wishes.
8. Upon reviewing your notes for a court appearance in one week, you realize that there is a clerical error and two results have been reversed. Which of the following is the best course of action?
a. Issue a corrected report including the date of the correction and testify to the error if asked.
b. Immediately notify the attorney and issue a report which makes the correction clear.
c. Immediately make an entry in your notes as to your discovery and correct it in testimony if asked.
d. Correct the error in testimony if asked, but make no additions or alterations to your notes.
9. A defendant has a combination of genetic marker types common to a particular evidence stain and 0.1 percent of the population. This means:
a. approximately 1 out of 1000 people would have the same types
b. the next 999 people that walked into the court room would not have the same combination of types
c. we are 99.9% certain that the person responsible is being tried
d. we are 0.1% certain that the person responsible is being tried
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
10. A drunk driver struck a pedestrian at a dark intersection. Realizing that the
headlamps were not on, the driver turns them on before the police arrive. The
broken right front low beam flashes and goes out. The police collect the
headlamp and submit it to you for examination. You are likely to find which of
the following indicators?
I. A sharp break
II. Hot deformation
III. Fused glass
IV. Large amounts of WO3 deposits
a. IV only
b. I only
c. II and III
d. II, III, and IV
11. Consider a fiber mounted in a Cargille oil having a refractive index (RI) of 1.520.
When the distance between the focused fiber specimen and the microscope's
objective lens is increased the observed Becke line moves away from the fiber.
Which statement is correct?
a. n(iso)<1.52
b. n(iso)>1.52
c. n(parallel)>1.52
d. n(parallel)<1.52
12. Microscopic examination of paint chips recovered from the clothing of a
pedestrian hit-and-run victim discloses the presence of numerous tiny glass
spheres in the paint. These glass spheres are diagnostic of which one of the
following?
a. a reflective paint
b. a automobile body filler
c. a broken headlamp on the suspect automobile
d. a custom topcoat formulation on the suspect automobile
13. What purpose does humidity serve when processing latent prints with
Cyanoacrylate?
a. causes polymerization and the formation of white particles on the ridges
b. cools the fuming chamber
c. accelerates development time
d. causes a chemical reaction that will turn the ridges purple
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
14. How many moles of Na2SO4 are required to make 500 ml of 0.5 M Na2SO4?
a. 0.25
b. 2.5
c. 0.025
d. 25
15. What are the most important components of a polymerase chain reaction?
a. oligonucleotides
b. dinucleotides
c. ribonucleotides
d. dideoxynucleotides
16. What will you do if the signal (e.g. peak height) obtained during the analysis is 2/5
times the noise level?
a. not report anything qualitative or quantitative
b. report qualitative results but not quantitative
c. report quantitative results, but not qualitative
d. report both qualitative and quantitative result
17. Which one of the following statements applies to FT-IR but NOT to dispersive IR?
a. the technique is considered to be a confirmatory test
b. the resulting spectrum is a measure of molecular vibration
c. the infrared radiation is analyzed utilizing interferometer
d. solid samples are prepared by mixing the sample with KBr and pressing a pellet
18. Which one of the following groups are vegetable fibers used in making rope and
cordage?
a. jute, hemp, manila, sisal
b. coir, flax, cotton, chrysotile
c. sisal, kapok, hemp, burlap
d. cotton, flax, kapok, coir
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
19. The differences in striation markings along a gun's bore could be the result of:
a. imperfections of the rifling cutter, distortions caused by a broach cutter, and
wear from the firing of bullets over time
b. imperfections of the rifling cutter
c. distortions caused by a broach cutter
d. wear from the firing of bullets over time
20. What is the value of a single piece of class evidence?
a. aid in the corroboration of events
b. relate physical evidence to a common origin
c. exclude or exonerate a person from suspicion
d. all of the above
21. Which of the following pairs of compounds are enantiomers?
a. psilocin and psilocybin
b. LSD and Lampa
c. d-cocaine and l-cocaine
d. phentermine and methamphetamine
22. How will the Rf values for eluents most likely be affected if a TLC tank is not kept saturated with the developing solvent?
a. They will increase.
b. They will decrease.
c. They will increase or decrease unpredictably.
d. They will not be affected.
23. If the IR absorbance spectrum for a previously unidentified drug matches that of an l-amphetamine HCL standard, which of the following would be a justifiable conclusion?
a. The unknown is l-amphetamine hydrochloride.
b. The unknown could be d-amphetamine hydrochloride.
c. The unknown could be l-amphetamine sulfate.
d. The unknown could be methamphetamine hydrochloride.
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
24. With which one of the following drugs will the Marquis reagent NOT produce a colored reaction product?
a. morphine
b. mescaline
c. amphetamine
d. barbiturate
25. Which one of the following reagents would be most useful for visualization and differentiation of the various cannabinoids separated from a marijuana extract on a TLC plate?
a. Ninhydrin and UV light
b. Dragandorff reagent
c. Fast blue 2B
d. Fluram
26. Which one of the following terms names the functional group responsible for the absorption of ultraviolet or visible radiation?
a. chromophore
b. auxochrome
c. bathochrome
d. hypsochrome
27. The term “theoretical plate” refers to which one of the following parameters in gas chromatography?
a. retention time
b. polarity
c. efficiency
d. stationary phase thickness
28. 250 mg of heroin standard is dissolved in 25 mL of a solvent. 1mL of this solution is added to 5 mL of an internal standard solution and then diluted with more solvent to a final volume of 10 mL. What is the final concentration of the heroin standard?
a. 0.10 mg/mL
b. 0.25 mg/mL
c. 1.00 mg/mL
d. 2.50 mg/mL
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
29. What is an MSDS?
a. A document of chemical safety.
b. An instrument for chemical analysis.
c. A technique for testing DNA.
d. A type of explosive material.
30. In microscopy, which one of the following terms describes the relationship between retardation and thickness?
a. Aberration
b. Dispersion
c. Scattering
d. Birefringence
31. Which of the following statements BEST describes the phenomenon of pH?
a. The negative log of the hydrogen ion concentration.
b. The positive log of the hydrogen ion concentration.
c. The difference between the concentrations of the hydrogen ions and the hydroxyl ions
d. The titer of the hydrogen ions in solution.
32. Which of the following actions is not forbidden by the ABC Code of Professional Conduct?
a. Embellishing one’s qualifications when testifying.
b. Utilizing a secret method.
c. Refusing to honor a subpoena duces tecum.
d. Interpreting equivocal results based only on an employer’s wishes.
33. Ohm’s law interrelates potential (volts) to ________________?
a. Power
b. Joules
c. Resistance
d. Conductance
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
34. What is the range of probabilities that two genes on the same chromosome will remain together after meiosis?
a. 5% to 25%
b. 1% to 99%
c. 25% to 75%
d. 50% to 99%
35. Which of the following assumptions is required in order to use the product rule
a. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
b. Dependent inheritance of the genetic markers
c. Independent inheritance of the genetic markers
d. Proper statistical sampling of the population
36. A nucleic acid must contain a nitrogenous base and which of the following?
I. Aromatic ring
II. 4-carbon ring
III. 5-carbon ring
IV. phosphate
a. I, II, and IV
b. III and IV
c. I and III
d. I and IV
37. What are the four nucleotides found in DNA?
a. thiamine, adenine, guanine, cysteine
b. alanine, guanine, cytosine, thiamine
c. cytosine, thymine, guanine, adenine
d. adenine, cysteine, thymine, guanine
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
38. Which of the following factors DO NOT affect the migration of DNA fragments through an electrophoretic system?
I. pore size
II. tracking dye
III. DNA shape
a. II only
b. II and III
c. I and II
d. I and III
39. A three banded isoenzyme pattern with a 1:2:1 intensity ratio indicates a ________________ protein.
a. monomeric
b. dimeric
c. trimeric
d. tetrameric
40. Consider the following data describing a genetic marker:
1-1 N = 120
2-1 N = 90
2-2 N = 60
The Probability of Discrimination (PD) for the genetic marker is described by the data above is:
a. 0.10
b. 0.29
c. 0.71
d. 0.90
41. What are organic compounds having the basic formula NH2-R-COOH (where R = an aliphatic or aromatic side chain) that are polymerized to form peptides and proteins termed?
a. amino acids
b. enzymes
c. phospholipids
d. polysaccharides
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
42. Detection of p30 in a questioned stain would allow identification of semen from individuals who are classified as:
a. anemic
b. aspermic
c. nonsecretors
d. secretors
43. Which one of the following products would be expected to contain the HIGHEST concentration of aromatic hydrocarbons?
a. Paint thinner.
b. Gasoline.
c. Kerosene.
d. Coleman fuel.
44. The transfer of heat energy through a solid material by contact between its moving molecules is called:
a. Conduction.
b. Convection.
c. Radiation.
d. Direct flame impingement
45. Which of the following classes of compounds is the MOST indicative of gasoline?
a. Polynuclear hydrocarbons.
b. Aliphatic hydrocarbons.
c. Alicyclic hydrocarbons.
d. Aromatic hydrocarbons
46. Which of the following garments would be the most suitable for collection of trace evidence by using a tape lift technique?
a. Nylon shell windbreaker
b. Mohair sweater
c. Cotton/polyester blend dress shirt
d. Pair of blue denim trousers
Study Guide for the FSAT Examination
47. Which of the following properties of synthetic fibers require the use of a polarized light microscope for their determination?
I. Sign of elongation
II. Birefringence
III. Extinction
IV. Modification ratio
V. Refractive index
a. I, II and III, only
b. V, only
c. I and V, only
d. II, III and V, only
48. What is phaeomelanin?
a. A reddish-brown to yellow pigment occurring in hair.
b. A sulfur-containing fibrous protein.
c. A condition of hair characterized by brittle hair with a clean break.
d. A brown pigment occurring in hair.
49. Which of the following elements would NOT normally be detected using conventional x-ray fluorescence or energy dispersive x-ray spectroscopic methods employing a beryllium window detector?
I. Lithium. II. Chlorine. III. Boron. IV. Chromium
a. I only
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV
50. Which of the following is the most common type of external plasticizer found in the paint industry?
a. phosphates
b. butyl acrylate
c. phthalates
d. adipates
